1. Project Risk Management includes all of the following
processes except:
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- Risk Monitoring and Control
- Risk Identification
- Risk Avoidance
- Risk Response Planning
- Risk Management Planning
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2. Using the PMBOK definition of contingency reserve, which of the following statements about contingency reserves is false?
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- A contingency reserve is a separately planned quantity used to allow for future situations which may be planned for only in part.
- Contingency reserves may be set aside for known unknowns
- Contingency reserves may be set aside for unknown unknowns
- Contingency reserves are normally included in the project's cost and schedule baselines
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3. Which of the following is not a tool or technique used during the Risk Quantification Process?
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- Expected monetary value
- Contingency planning
- Decision Trees
- Statistical sums
- All of the above are tools and techniques of Risk Quantification
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4. Which of the following is true about pure risk?
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- The risk can be deflected or transferred to another party through a contract or insurance policy
- Pure risks involve the chance of both a profit and a loss
- No opportunities are associated with pure risk, only losses
- a and c
- a and b
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5. A contingency plan is
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- A planned response that defines the steps to be taken if an identified risk event should occur
- A workaround
- A reserve used to allow for future situations which may be planned for only in part
- a and c
- a and b
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6. The normal risk of doing business that carries opportunities for both gain and loss is called:
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- favorable risk
- opportunity risk
- pure risk
- business risk
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7. A risk response which involves eliminating a threat is called:
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- Mitigation
- Deflection
- Avoidance
- Transfer
- b and d
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8. Deflection or transfer of a risk to another party is part of which of the following risk response categories?
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- Mitigation
- Acceptance
- Avoidance
- Analysis
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9. When should risk identification be performed? (select best answer)
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- During Concept Phase
- During Development Phase
- During Implementation Phase
- Risk identification should be performed on a regular basis throughout the project
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10. Which of the following statements is false?
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- Uncertainty and risk are greatest at the start of the project and lowest at the end
- The amount at stake is lowest at the end of the project and greatest at the start
- Expected monetary value can be expressed as the product of the risk event probability and the risk event value
- Opportunities are positive outcomes of risk
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11. A contingency plan is executed when:
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- A risk is identified
- An identified risk occurs
- When a workaround is needed
- All of the above
- b and c
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12. Management reserves are used to handle which type of risk?
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- Unknown unknowns
- Known unknowns
- business risks
- pure risks
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13. Which of the following techniques accounts for path convergence and generally estimates project durations more accurately?
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- CPM
- PERT
- Schedule simulation
- Path convergence method
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14. Most schedule simulations are based on some form of which of the following?
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- Delphi
- PERT
- CPM
- Monte Carlo Analysis
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15. When should a risk be avoided?
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- When the risk event has a low probability of occurrence and low impact
- When the risk event is unacceptable -- generally one with a very high probability of occurrence and high impact
- When it can be transferred by purchasing insurance
- A risk event can never be avoided
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16. If a project has an 80% chance of having the scope defined by a certain date and a 70% chance of obtaining approval for the scope by a certain date, what is the probability of both events occurring?
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- 75%
- 65%
- 50%
- 56%
- 66%
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17. The independence of two events in which the occurrence of one is not related to the occurrence of the other is called:
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- event phenomenon
- independent probability
- statistical independence
- statistical probability
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18. The one document that should always be used to help identify risk is the:
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- Risk Management Plan
- WBS
- Scope Statement
- Project Charter
- Contingency Plan
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19. Risks are accepted when:
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- You develop a contingency plan to execute should the risk event occur
- You accept the consequences of the risk
- You transfer the risk to another party
- You reduce the probability of the risk event occurring
- a and b
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20. An example of risk mitigation is:
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- Using proven technology in the development of a product to lessen the probability that the product will not work
- Purchasing insurance
- Eliminating the cause of a risk
- Accepting a lower profit if costs overrun
- a and b
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21. A process that is not part of Project Risk Management is
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- Identification
- Solicitation
- Qualitative and Quantitative Analysis
- Response Development
- Monitoring and Control
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22. A response to negative risk event is known as a:
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- Work item
- Work package
- Workaround
- Work breakdown structure
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23. Who is responsible for risk identification, risk
quantification, risk response development, risk response
control?
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- Project Communications Management
- Project Human Resource Management
- Project Procurement Management
- Project Risk Management
- None of the above
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24. In summing probability distributions what is the
formula for Mean?
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- Mean = (a + m + b) / 2
- Mean = (a + m + b) / 3
- Mean = (a + m + b) / 1
- Mean = (a + m + b)3
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25. In beta distributions using PERT approximations what
is the formula for Variance?
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- Variance = [(b - a) / 6] / 2 2
- Variance = [(b - a) / 6] / 3 3
- Variance = [(b - a) / 6] 3
- Variance = [(b - a) / 6] 2
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26. When summing the probability distributions if the
distributions are skewed to the __________, the project
mean will always be significantly higher than the sum of
the most likely estimates.
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- Right
- Left
- Middle
- Not skewed
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27. By using Project Risk Management techniques project
managers can develop strategies that do all but which of
the following:
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- Significantly reduce project risks
- Eliminate project risks
- Provide a rational basis for better decision making
- Identifying risks, their impact(s), and any appropriate responses
- None of the above
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28. Which phase of the project life cycle typically has
the highest uncertainty and risk associated with it?
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- Concept
- Development
- Execution
- Conclusion
- All of the above
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29. Risks classified as unknown (i.e., those which cannot
be identified or evaluated):
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- Should be deflected to the contracting officer
- Should be handled via contingency allowances
- Should be ignored since they cannot be identified
- Should be ignored, since they are not covered in the Project Risk Assessment
- C and D
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30. Risks can be divided into two basic types: business
risk and pure (or insurable risk). Of the following,
which one(s) fall(s) under business risk?
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- Liability Loss
- Direct property loss
- Profit loss
- Personnel-related loss
- B and C
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31. The type of contract (payment mechanism) chosen for
a project is of the degree of risk associated with
completing that project. For a firm fixed price contract,
payment for risks:
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- Is accomplished by paying the actual costs to the contractor
- Is accomplished by paying the contractor for his cost plus a fixed fee (profit)
- Is an undisclosed contingency in the contractor's bid
- Is accomplished by paying for the budgeted costs of dealing with as predicted in the Project Risk Assessment
- B and C
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32. The principles of risk management should be
followed only for:
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- Complex projects
- Simple projects
- Large projects
- A and C
- All of the above
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33. Deflection involves the transfer of risk by such
means as:
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- Contracting out to another party
- Developing schedule alternatives
- Developing discrete organizational functions under the project manager to handle risk events
- Disaster planning and responses
- None of the above
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34. Risk mitigation involves all but which of the
following:
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- Developing system standards (policies, procedures, responsibility standards)
- Obtaining insurance against loss
- Identification of project risks
- Performing contingent planning
- Developing planning alternatives
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35. Total Project Risk
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- should not be calculated for small project
- is the probability of each project event times the sum of the consequences of individual project risk events
- is the cumulative sum of the probability of each individual project risk event times the consequences of occurrence of that risk event
- A and B
- A and C
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36. In Project Risk Management, Risk Response may include
actions to:
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- reduce the probability of risk events
- change the scope, budget, schedule, or quality specifications of the project
- reduce the consequences or severity of impacts of a potential risk event
- A and C
- all of the above
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37. "Fast Tracked" project awarded and begun before all
planning and risk assessment information is complete and
available:
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- May be completed in reduced overall time than other project
- Are in a higher risk category than other projects
- Are not compatible with project risk assessment
- A and B
- All of the above
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38. Risk event probability is determined as:
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- The total number of possible events divided into the expectation or frequency of the risk event
- The number of times the risk event may occur
- The fraction of the total project tasks which may be affected by the risk event
- The total number of possible events divided into the consequences of the risk event
- A and D
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39. Final risk quantification and modeling normally
considers the impacts of all risks combined and:
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- Translated the impacts into economic terms for analysis
- Concentrated on schedule impacts
- May not consider safety and environmental impacts
- A and B
- A and C
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40. Sensitivity Analysis can be used in risk analysis to:
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- Substitute for uncertainty analysis in risk quantification
- Estimate the level of risk aversion adopted by management
- Estimate the effect of change of one project variable on the overall project
- A and B
- All of the above
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41. Many companies self-insure against some risks.
Problems which can arise from self-insurance include
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- failure to reserve funds to handle worst-case scenarios (low probability events) resulting in sever financial damage to the company
- stiff competition from insurance companies
- confusion of business risks with insurable risks
- A and C
- all of the above
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42. Using the figure below, what is the probability of
success for project B?
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- 0.30
- 0.20
- 0.35
- 0.15
- 0.12
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43. In performing an impact analysis the most effective
tool to ensure all risks are identified on large projects
is the:
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- Work breakdown structure
- Milestone review and schedule technique
- Cost / schedule Control system
- Planning programming budget system
- Program and evaluation review technique
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44. Budgeted contingencies can be determined by:
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- Past experience
- Applying standard allowances
- Determining the sum total of the most probable variances of the various risk item properly identified
- All of the above
- None of the above
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45. During which phase of the project life cycle is the
amount at stake lowest?
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- Concept
- Development
- Execution
- Conclusion
- C and D
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46. Contingent planning should include all but which of
the following?
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- The development of a contingency allowance determined by combining (layering) various estimate segments to form larger estimate segments
- The development of schedule alternatives and work-arounds
- The management of a contingency budget
- An assessment of project shutdown liabilities
- A and C
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47. Critical variance is best described as
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- variation beyond which the project will likely fail
- the variance resulting from sensitivity analysis
- the maximum tolerable variance in any single element of an estimate's bottom line total cost
- the contingency required for a given level of confidence
- C and D
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48. The Delphi method involves brainstorming as a method
of risk identification.
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- True
- False
|
49. Your manager has told you that you have a 10% chance
of getting a "1" appraisal and an 80% chance of getting
a "2" appraisal. What are you chances of getting a "3"
appraisal?
|
- less than 1%
- 10%
- at least 90%
- cannot be determined from this information
|
50. The single point standard deviations are 3, 5, 10,
and 3 for the critical path. What is the standard
deviation for the entire path?
|
- 21
- 12
- 143
- 5.5
- impossible to determine without optimistic and pessimistic estimates
|
51. Mitigating risk could involve
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- identifying risks, obtaining insurance and developing alternatives
- contracting and quality assurance
- developing standards, buying insurance, and planning for contingencies and alternatives
- re-scoping the project and reassessing requirements
- C and D
|
52. The 200 million dollar nuclear power plant you have
just built cannot be activated because a pair of rare
spotted owls have just built their nest in your steam
tower. You explain this to the CEO of the utility as
|
- the importance of concern for endangered species
- an unknown - unknown
- a known - unknown
- an occurrence that should be handled via contingency allowances
- C and D
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53. A manager who says "I'll pay for it, but I want it
as soon as possible" is considered to be
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- authoritarian
- risk accepting
- risk averse
- in need of a solution
- intolerant of basic project management principles
|
54. If the mean is 3, the mode is 4, the median is 2,
the PERT is 6, and one standard deviation is 3, a 95%
confidence level is between
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- 0 and 12
- 3 and 9
- -3 and 9
- 1 and 7
- 0 and 6
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55. Final risk quantification and modeling normally
considers the impacts of all risks except possibly
those due to
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- producibility
- reliability
- affordability
- acceptability
- operability
|
56. Risk management is defined as the art and science
of _________ risk factors throughout the life cycle
of a project.
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- researching, reviewing, and acting on
- identifying, analyzing, and responding to
- reviewing, monitoring, and managing
- identifying, reviewing, and avoiding
- analyzing, changing, and suppressing
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57. Project risk is defined as the cumulative effect
of the chances of _________ that will adversely affect
project objectives.
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- likely events
- complex activities
- complex schedules
- uncertain occurrences
- new work
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58. The three factors that characterize project risk
are _________.
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- severity of impact, duration of impact, and cost of impact
- identification, type of risk category, and probability of impact
- risk event, risk probability, and the amount at stake
- occurrence, frequency, and cost
- cost, schedule, and quality
|
59. Risk event is the precise description of what might
happen to the _________ of the project.
|
- manager
- detriment
- schedule
- budget
- length
|
60. In the risk management context, mitigation and
deflection are moth means of _________ the risk to
the _________ objectives.
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- improving; client's
- increasing; project's
- decreasing; sponsor's
- decreasing; project's
- decreasing; corporation's
|
61. Contingency planning is a means to _________ risks
to the project through a formal process and provide the
resources to meet the risk events.
|
- address
- classify
- assign
- resolve
- eliminate
|
62. Suppose a project manager is negotiating with a
subcontractor to provide the installation and integration
of a computer system with data links. The data links must
access three different computer protocols and provide a
common data communication. This integration of the data
protocols has never been accomplished. Since both are
attempting to avoid any risk, the project manager would
like to a award a _________ contract, while the
subcontractor would like to sign only a _________ contract.
|
- letter; formal
- fixed-price; cost-plus
- cost-plus; fixed-price
- no-fault; no-obligation
- variable; lump-sum
|
63. Suppose a project manager of a research and
development contract is charged with building a new radar
antenna for an aircraft. The weight is limited to 12
pounds in the specification. This represents a major
weight reduction over current systems, which weigh in
excess of 26 pounds. Before starting the project, the
project manager should __________.
|
- attempt to cancel the cost-plus contract because the antenna just cannot be built to the specification
- ignore the situation because no one has said the antenna cannot be built to specification
- assess the probability of failing to meet the specification
- start work immediately to get most of the hardware fabricated so it can be weighed to determine the actual weight of the completed antenna
- delay and risk assessment until the project is better defined through building experience
|
64. Suppose the project manager is evaluating the bids of
two vendors. Each vendor offers to sell similar electronic
components, which are integrated at the vendors site. To
avoid the most risk, the project manager views items such
as the vendor's __________.
|
- price, sales volume, and profit margin
- price, promised delivery, and inspection schedule
- personnel policies, personnel training program, and price
- price, experience, and delivery means
- experience, personnel skills, and material control procedures
|
65. Suppose the project manager must submit a summary
risk assessment to the director of project managers.
The assessment is to be made for each component of a new
electronics system. The project manager submits the
following:
- Component A - Low Risk
- Component B - Medium Risk
- Component C - Moderate Risk
- Component D - High Risk
- Component E - Medium Risk
The problem with the project manager's risk assessment
is that __________.
|
- the project risk has a full range of risk values
- the project risk is normally distributed
- the project risk has one high risk assessment that could cause problems
- the project risk assessment does not have a uniform evaluation criteria for the middle risk category
- there is no identifiable problem
|
66. Suppose the project is set at $2,300,000 for the
total project. Some work that must be accomplished has
not been identified in the initial planning. The most
appropriate source of funds to cover this work is
the __________.
|
- management reserve
- contingency reserve
- slush fund reserve
- sinking fund
- corporate profit
|
67. Suppose the project manager is planning courses of
action to develop the strategy for the project. Courses
"A" and "B" are both feasible options and can be
implemented. Senior management has directed that risk be
considered, but there is a need to maximize the profit on
this project. A decision tree is used as a valid means for
selecting the most profitable option. Course "A" has a
potential profit of $27,500 with a probability of 0.75
success. Course "B" has a potential profit of $20,800 with
a probability of 0.90 success. The course of action that
should be selected is __________.
|
- Course "A" because it has a higher profit potential
- Course "B" because it has a higher probability of success
- Course "A" because it has an expected value of $36,667 when the probability is factored into the decision
- Course "A" because it has an expected value of $1,905 more than Course "B"
- Either course because there is no difference in expected value
|
68. Suppose the project has many hazards that could easily
injure one or more persons and there is no method of
avoiding the potential for damages. The project manager
should consider __________ as a means of deflecting the
risk.
|
- abandoning the project
- buying insurance for personal bodily injury
- establishing a contingency fund
- establishing a management reserve
- not acknowledging the potential for injury
|
69. The primary characteristic that distinguishes external
and internal risk areas is the __________.
|
- magnitude of the impact on the project
- project manager's perception of risk
- technical nature of the project
- use of more or fewer subcontractors
- project manager's ability to influence the risk
|
70. There are two general categories of risk areas,
internal and external. Examples of external risk
areas are __________.
|
- schedule delays, cost overruns, and changes in technology
- regulatory, project completion, and taxation
- natural disasters, regulatory, and design
- currency rates, design, and social impact
- inflation rates, performance, and schedule delays
|
71. In the area of legal risks, there are two reasons for
licensing of projects. One reason is for revenue
generation by the community, while the other is
for __________.
|
- harassment of the project manager
- bureaucratic interest in the project
- public safety of the product
- monitoring of the project schedule
- identification of the project manager
|
72. Intellectual property rights assigned to an individual
by means of a patent or copyright have value to the owner.
Any infringement on those rights during the implementation
of a project can __________.
|
- cause a law suit to be initiated for damages
- cause the project to be halted pending a legal determination of property rights
- cause damages to be awarded to the holder of a patent
- diminish the reputation of the project's parent corporation
- all of the above
|
73. During the conduct of impact analysis for any risk,
the individual performs screening. Screening is for the
purpose of determining whether the risk is __________ the
project.
|
- within or outside the scope of
- a contingency item for
- significant enough to adversely affect
- realistic and treatable during implementation of
- all of the above
|
74. Suppose a project of $1.5 million has an adverse event
that has a probability of 0.07 of occurrence and a potential
loss of $15,000. This represents an expected negative value
of __________.
|
- $10,500
- $1,050
- $105
- $15,000
- cannot be determined from the available data
|
75. The assigned values of risk for a project is best
accomplished through a structured methodology that
ensures all project elements are evaluated. The project
tool that is best suited for the structured analysis of
the project risk is the __________.
|
- contract
- specification
- statement of work
- work breakdown structure
- linear programming diagram
|
76. During the assessment of the risk to attempt to
quantify the probability of failure and the amount
of potential loss, the project manager uses
the __________ personnel to make the estimates.
|
- engineering
- marketing
- experienced
- planning
- project
|
77. Suppose during the risk analysis process that one
identified risk event cannot be avoided, mitigated, or
insured. The risk event is a critical item that, if it
occurs, could cause the project to fail. the best
option for the project manager is to __________.
|
- play down the risk because the team will find a means of overcoming any failure
- place special emphasis on the risk event to intensely manage that item and all interfacing items
- have the risk assessment team continue to analyze the risk event until it reduces the expected negative value
- continue to search for an insurance company that will assume the risk
- ignore the risk assessment because any assigned value is a point estimate that is never precisely the expected state of nature
|
78. Suppose during project implementation on a fixed price
contract, the budget for one work package has cost more
than estimated because of an error that required reworking
the task. The cost of materials and labor to rework the
task required is $3,117 more than the budget. The money
for this rework is covered by the __________.
|
- contingency funds
- management reserve
- overhead charges
- profit margin
- G&A charges
|
79. The PERT (Program Evaluation and Review Technique)
is a method of scheduling projects. In the context of
risk, PERT is better than CPM (Critical Path Method)
because it deals with the __________.
|
- logic associated with the cost estimates
- logic associated with the schedule estimates
- certainly associated with the cost estimates
- uncertainty associated with the schedule estimates
- certainty associated with the schedule estimates
|
80. Suppose the project manager establishes a risk model
that will be used on the CALTRON Project. The risk model
identifies the risk events and assigns probabilities of
occurrence. However, what is missing from the risk model
is __________.
|
- nothing. the model is complete
- that the risk probabilities need to be summed to determine the total project risk
- that the risk events must be labeled as internal or external risks
- that the risk events do not address the technology used by the CALTRON Project
- that the impact of the risk on the project's objectives has not been assessed and assigned
|
81. A high-risk project usually receives the highest
priority by the top management. To effectively manage
the project, the project manager should establish with
the top management a charter that calls for
his __________ and the basis for __________ without
prior consultation.
|
- schedule; change
- budget; change
- responsibilities; managing
- resources; obtaining additional resources
- obligations; conducting trade-offs
|
82. High-risk projects are always of concern to senior
management and will receive the most scrutiny. The major
concern of the project manager of a high-risk project is
the tendency for senior management to often __________.
|
- interrupt or intervene in the project's management
- avoid or deny the project's potential risk
- give low priority to resource allocation
- stay informed as to the project's progress
- give support to the project when additional resources are requested
|
83. Risk may be transferred from the owner (buyer) to the
contractor (seller) through a contractual vehicle. the
risk transfer is usually accomplished by the owner
awarding a fixed price contract where the contractor
agrees to perform for a single price. For the owner this
simple solution has hidden costs that include all
but __________.
|
- conservatism in design and fabrication
- conservatism in scheduling
- a focus on the avoidance of liability, rather than the important project issues
- an unclear assignment of work because the contractor accepts no performance criteria
- loss of productivity through excessive checking (inspection)
|
84. Guarantees in a project agreement give some degree of
assurance to the owner (buyer) that the end product will
meet the specified requirements, but they also represent
potential future costs to the contractor (seller), or
cost risk, if the system fails. The four express (as
compared to implied) guarantee categories
are __________.
|
- scope, cost, schedule, and quality
- design, safety, fabrication, and functional
- mechanical, electrical, software, and physical
- operational, functional, maintainability, and reparability
- design, workmanship, equipment, and performance (process)
|
85. A project may have an implied warranty that is not
specifically detailed in the contract. This implied
warranty represents potential future costs for failure
to meet the requirements and is a risk to the project.
Implied warranties are usually those associated
with __________, which are spelled out in the Uniform
Commercial Code.
|
- conformance to requirements and safety of use
- regulatory agency requirements and environmental pollution
- lawful use of the product and safety of use
- merchantability and fitness for purpose
- operability and durability
|
86. Performance of a contract can bring liabilities that
have implications of risk but are perhaps not as visible
as the stated and implied warranty and guarantee. Two of
these liabilities are __________ infringements.
|
- trade secret and advanced technology
- process secret and advanced technology
- patent and copyright
- trade name and trade secret
- design and fabrication
|
87. Project risk through liability comes in two forms:
breach of contract and a tort. Breach of contract is
essentially a failure to perform the service or provide
the required product, while a tort is a personal wrong
such as __________.
|
- an automobile accident
- an accident on commercial premises
- slander and battery
- assault and battery
- all of the above
|
88. Risk of loss may be transferred to an insurance
underwriter by means of an insurance policy. Such
policies state the monetary value of property damage
that will be given for sustained losses. To make an
informed decision about buying insurance, the project
manager needs to determine the ratio of insurance cost
and the expected value of the loss. for example, if
the cost of insurance is $10,000, the value of the
property is $200,000, and the probability of loss is
0.05 ( or five percent), the insurance is __________.
|
- desirable because it will costs less than the probable losses
- undesirable because it costs more than the probable losses
- indeterminable because of insufficient data
- the same as the cost of the probable loss and there is no advantage
- none of the above
|
89. Lease, rental, and hire of equipment for short periods
of time to perform specified project work is a common
practice. The equipment poses __________ unless the
contractor (lessor) __________.
|
- no risk; abuses the equipment beyond fair usage
- no risk; assumes title to the equipment during the use period
- risk; insures for damages or loss
- risk; denies liability during the use period
- risk; is insured for the cost of lease, rental, or hire
|
90. The owner (buyer) of a project usually has the right to
direct changes to the scope of work while the project
work is being accomplished. Often, the owner will orally
request a change and insist that the change be initiated
immediately without the normal documentation (e.g., a
change order). When the change is initiated without
documentation, __________.
|
- the owner assumes all responsibility for paying for the change although he may at a later date not want the change
- the owner assumes responsibility for one-half of the cost of the change until the documentation is completed and then assumes all at that time
- the project manager assumes all risk for the change, if initiated, until the documentation is received
- the project manager assumes only the risk of misinterpreting the owner's oral change directive, while the owner assumes responsibility for paying for the requested change
- it cannot be determined who is responsible for payment and risk without further information
|
91. The probability of failure for a project element is
often called exposure to risk, or risk exposure. This
exposure may be mitigated by taking measures to avoid a
particular approach or use of specific technologies.
When the risk exposure cannot be reduced through
selection of another alternative, the project manager
should __________.
|
- conduct further studies and analyses until a more attractive alternative is found
- disregard the exposure to risk because nothing can be done
- not perform the activities with risk exposure and save the money that would have been spent on them
- hire an independent consultant to manage the risk exposure through extensive investigations and new technologies
- establish a contingency plan to overcome any adverse activity, which may include a contingency allowance
|
92. Project risk should be identified and assessed prior
to project initiation during the planning phase. Once the
implementation starts, there is less time to objectively
assess risk and select the more attractive alternatives.
During the implementation there may be indications of
risk (i.e., failure to meet the project's objectives)
such as __________.
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- numerous change orders pending approval
- instability of project progress information
- conflict between the project manager and customer
- loss of focus on the work by line supervisors
- all of the above
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93. The project manager may realize that some terms of
the contract and project objectives will not be met.
It would be costly and time consuming to meet some
specifications. The project has a high degree of
exposure to risk at this point. Negotiation with the
customer to reduce the risk exposure is a means
that __________.
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- could eliminate all risk to the project and customer at no cost to either party
- could redefine the risk exposure to one of opportunities for both the project and customer
- could result in reduced scope for the project and an improved product for the customer
- may cost less to pay penalties and meet a modified specification to meet the minimum customer requirements
- all of the above
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94. Demonstration and performance tests are used to prove
the functional and operating characteristics of a
deliverable to the customer. The tests pose a risk when
the __________ criteria are selected to demonstrate the
capabilities because __________.
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- low end; the system will be stressed to meet the minimum requirements and meet all the customer's requirements
- more stringent; the system may meet the requirements but fail the testing
- standard; the system will always pass the testing and not fully stress the functions
- manufacturer's; the system will always pass the testing and not fully stress the functions
- none of the above
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95. Uncertainty is often used in conjunction with the
term risk, implying that uncertainty is risk. Uncertainty
is an unknown situation that may result from a lack of
information to sufficiently quantify the probability of
occurrence of an event and to determine the most likely
outcome. Therefore, any uncertainty that has a potential
for a major impact on a project should be __________.
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- assigned a risk exposure index of greater than or equal to eight pending further resolution of the risk exposure
- ignored until additional information can be obtained to resolve the actual risk exposure
- studied to determine alternatives that may have a high-risk index but are fully understood
- resolved before project implementation but must be resolved before starting that area of work
- resolved before project implementation or the project must be delayed pending a better understanding of the situation
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